Question:
My teacher said that the Hebrew word for Homosexuality is defined as
confused.
Hi, Grandpa,
My teacher the last two weeks said that the Hebrew word for Homosexuality is defined as confused. I was just wondering if you could confirm this.
Thank you,
Dave
Answer - Click here to view the answer
Dave,
The actual word, homosexual, and its derivatives, are not found in the Hebrew Bible. That sin is described like the following two verses.
Lev 18:22 You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination.
Lev 20:13 If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination. They shall surely be put to death. Their blood shall be upon them.
Homosexuality and
male prostitution were unfortunately prevalent in Greek and Roman
society. Plato approve of homosexuality in his The Symposium
(181B). Nero, who was the emperor when Paul wrote 1
Corinthians, according to Suetonius’s Lives of the Twelve Caesars, p.
258, 259, was a real pervert. “Besides abusing freeborn boys and
seducing married women, he debauched the Vestal Virgin Rubria. . . He
castrated the boy Sporus and actually tried to make a woman of him. He
married him with all the usual ceremonies, including a dowry and a
bridal veil, took him to his house attended by a great throng, and
treated him as his wife.” This was no big deal since most of the first
Roman emperors were homosexual or bisexual.
In the New Testament there are two main words used. 1
Co 6:9,10
uses both of them. “Do you not know that the unrighteous will not
inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor
idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals (malakoi;),
nor sodomites (ajrsenokoi`tai), 10 nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor
revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God.” The first
word is the adjective:
malakov", which means, soft.
1. of things: clothes m. iJmavtia soft garments, such as fastidious people wear Lk 7:25. (ta;) m. soft clothes, Mt 11:8a, b.
2.
of pers. soft, effeminate, esp. of catamites, men and boys
who allow themselves to be misused homosexually; a musician called
Zenobius oJ malakov". Sim. a Macedon. inscr. in LDuchesne and CBayet, Mémoire
sur une Mission au Mont Athos 1876 no. 66 p. 46; Plautus, Miles 668
cinaedus malacus) 1 Co 6:9=Pol 5:3.—S. lit. s.v. ajrsenokoivth". M-M. B. 1065.*
The second word
is a noun:
ajrsenokoivth", oJ, a male who practices homosexuality, pederast, sodomite 1 Co 6:9;
1 Ti 1:10. Cf. Ro 1:27.
Bauer,
Gingrich, Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and
Other Early Christian Literature. Chicago: University of Chicago
Press, 1979.
That’s all I could find. I hope this helps,
Grandpa
Question: The KJV & NKJV differ. What is going on in Proverbs 16:1?
HaShem means, the name. Jewish scholars use this instead of Yahweh, etc.
Answer - Click here to view the answer
Michael,
The NKJV is definitely the better of the two. I would translate the verse, “The preparations of the heart are man’s, but the utterance of the tongue is from HaShem.” The way KJV takes the verse is inconsistent with the syntax of the Hebrew; their rendering is a stretch at best. NKJV is also much more consistent with the general pattern of Proverbs, where the verse is divided into two thoughts which (more often) contrast with or (less often) complement each other. This pattern is evident in the following verse, which also contrasts God and man: “All a man’s ways are pure in his own eyes, but HaShem weighs the spirits.” In fact, the essential concept of verse 1 is echoed in verse 9, “A man’s heart plans his way, but HaShem directs his steps.” Another similar idea is found in Jeremiah 10:23-24, “I know, HaShem, that a man’s way is not his own; it is not for a man as he is walking to direct his own steps. Correct me, HaShem, but constructively; not in anger, lest You diminish me.”
I believe these verses illustrate the marvelous experience of walking with God. Paul calls us God’s co-workers in Romans 8:28. God does not do everything for us, diminishing us, rendering of no effect the gifts and abilities He has given us. But neither does He leave us to work it all out without His direction and guidance. Our spiritual journey is sustained by a remarkable synergy of the Spirit’s power and our working in concert with God. As the Psalm says, “Unless HaShem is building the house, those who are building it are laboring in vain” (127:1).
Timothy P. McMahon
Question: Must we call God, Yahweh, and Jesus, Yeshua?
Name: Michael
Hi Bob,
I've been getting a lot of email from weird people lately. They send me emails telling me that Yaweh is the only name of God. And they will tell me that Yeshua is the only name for Jesus. Would you please help me with this area? Because I'm used to saying Jesus and Father, and Jehovah, and Adonai. Can you give me any direction in this matter?
Answer (click here to view the answer)
God’s name in covenant relationship with Israel is, Yahweh. These people are either Messianic Jews, or Gentiles trying to be Jewish Christians. In contrast, we are members of the body of Christ. We speak English. We may call Him God, Father, Jesus, or if you are trying to emulate the Jews, Yahweh. The Jews don’t even call Him Yahweh, they do not want to use His name in fear of using it in vain. They instead say HaShem, the Name. Obadiah showed me something Garrett did on Jehovah’ name in Exodus 6:2,3. It was a serious problem because it seemed to contradict the other Scripture cited below.
Exodus 6:2,3
And
God spoke to Moses and said to him: “I am the LORD. 3 I appeared to
Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as God Almighty, but by My name Lord I was not known to them.” (NKJV). Yet He was known to
them as Lord in many
passages before that. Here are a few: Gen
12:8 And he moved from there to the mountain east of Bethel, and he pitched
his tent with Bethel on the
west and Ai on the east; there he built an altar to the Lord
and called on the name of the Lord.
13:4 to the place of the
altar which he had made there at first. And there Abram called on the
name of the Lord.
15:2,7 But Abram said, “Lord God,
what will You give me, seeing I go childless, and the heir of my house is
Eliezer of Damascus?” 7 Then He said to him, “I am
the Lord, who brought you
out of Ur of the Chaldeans, to give you this land to inherit it.” 25:21 Now Isaac pleaded with the Lord
for his wife, because she was
barren; and the Lord
granted his plea, and Rebekah his wife conceived. 28:16
Then Jacob awoke from his sleep and said, “Surely the Lord is in this place, and I did not know it.”
Exodus 6:2,3
.hw:hyÒ ynIa}
wyl;ae rm,aYœw" hv,moAla, µyhil¿aÔ rBed'yÒw"
yD;v' laeB]
bqo[}y"Ala,wÒ qj;x]yIAla, µh;r;b]a'Ala, ar;aew:
.µh,l; yTi[]d'/n
al¿ hw:hyÒ ymiv]W
Garrett,
Rethinking Genesis
A
I am Yahweh
B
And I made myself known to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob by God
Almighty.
A
And My name is Yahweh
B
Did I not make myself known to them?
hw:hyÒ ynIa}
I am yahweh
yD;v' laeB] bqo[}y"Ala,wÒ
qj;x]yIAla, µh;r;b]a'Ala, ar;aew:
And I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob by El Shaddai
hw:hyÒ ymiv]W
And my name is Yahweh
.µh,l; yTi[]d'/n al ¿
Did I not make myself known to them
In
Christ,
Question: Without a J in either Hebrew or Greek, how did they get J words?
09 Apr 2000 11:57
Name: KEITH WILLIAMS Email: NAE6TRELL8@AOL.COM
BOB,HOW IS IT THAT THERE IS NO "J" OR EVEN THE PRONUNCIATION OF A "J" IN THE HEBREW ALPHABET BUT YET, WHEN THE BIBLE WAS TRANSLATED BY KING JAMES HE USED THE "J" IN "JESUS" AND "JOHOVA" "I,II,III JOHN" AND "JOSHUA" AND "JOB" AND "JOEL" AND "JOEL" AND "JUDE" AND "JEREMIAH" AND
"JUDGES". I DON'T UNDERSTAND THAT IF WE ARE TO HAVE AND ACCURATE ACCOUNT OF THE BIBLE SCRIPTURES, HOW DID ALL THESE NAMES GET THEIR PRONUNCIATON?
Answer: (click here to view the answer)
Keith,
Hebrew is
written and read from right to left. The Hebrew letter, Yodh, the tenth letter in the Hebrew alphabet, is pronounced as an I or
a J in English depending on the letter which follows it. For
instance, it is the first letter in the word for God we translate
Jehovah or yah v
weh,
or, Yahweh.
This is the name of God in His covenant relationship with
Israel. When Yodh is used in the word Israel, the Hebrew word
begins with a Yodh and Sin, the 21st letter, and pronounced pretty
much like we pronounce the name, Israel.
In Greek, the iota is like our i, and is pronounced in a
manner somewhat similar to the Hebrew pronunciation. Jesus and
Joshua have the same spelling in Greek. It was a very common name.
It was spelled with a long I, and then an ayta, a long a sound,
for the first two letters then an s, an o, a u, and an s. so the
word for Jesus/Joshua in Greek looked something like this Ia`sous.
We pronounce it easous when we read it in Greek, but we say Jesus
in English because the sound of the e and the a together have
somewhat of a light j sound.
Question: What is the Hebrew name for God and Jesus?
QUESTION II------BOB, WHAT IS THE ORIGINAL
"HEBREW" NAME FOR "GOD" AND "JESUS"?
Answer:
There are many names for God. Jehovah is the one used the most, about 5,500 times, in the O.T. This name has been preserved by our translators in a few passages, but the word Lord, spelled with small capitals and God, also spelled with small capitals, has usually been substituted for it.
The general Hebrew name for God is the plural form, Elohim. The singular form Eloah is found in fifty-seven passages, most of which are in the Book of Job. The Aramaic form, Elah, is found thirty-seven times in Ezra, once in Jeremiah, and forty-six times in Daniel. The more simple and elementary form El, is used to express power or might of the true God in 204 passages. All four of these names, El, Elah, Eloah, and Elohim seem to express the same idea. El is used in compound names, as El-Shaddai, Almighty God.
Adonai is the word usually translated Lord, or my Lord. It was first used of God in Gen. 15:2, 8; 18:3. In Ps 35:23, the Elohai and Adonai, my God and my Lord. In Ps 38:15, it is Adonai Elohai, my Lord, my God.
Jesus’ name only occurs as Joshua. There are two forms for this name in Hebrew, Jeshua, was the later form for Joshua. I’ve already explained how it looks in the N.T.
Question:III-------BOB, 400 YEARS AGO WHEN THE BIBLE WAS TRANSLATED WHAT NATIONALITY SPOKE "HEBREW"?
Answer:
No one spoke Hebrew 400 years ago. The Hebrew language was revived “When Jews moved to Palestine in the 19th century, Hebrew was revived as a spoken language. Modern Hebrew, Ivrit, was declared the official language of Israel in 1948. The language is written from right to left and employs an alphabet of 22 characters; the vocabulary is based on biblical Hebrew and the syntax on Mishnaic Hebrew. Long vowels are generally expressed in writing by unpronounced consonant sounds. Scriptures, children's books, and poetry use the Masoretic points, which are dots or dashes to indicate vowels. Pronunciation is modeled on that of the Sephardic Jews who live mainly in Turkey, Greece, and Bulgaria.” (Microsoft® Encarta® Encyclopedia 99. © 1993-1998 Microsoft Corporation.)
Question:IV---BOB, HOW DID KING JAMES TRANSLATE THE BIBLE? DID HE SPEAK FLUENT HEBREW? OR DID SOMEONE WHO WAS HEBREW TRANSLATE IT FOR HIM?
Answer:
King James did not translate the Bible. James convoked the Hampton Court Conference (1604), at which he authorized a new translation of the Bible, generally called the King James Version. In 1605 Lancelot Andrewes was consecrated bishop of Chichester. One of the most learned men of his time, he was appointed (1607) with nine other theologians to translate the first 12 books of the Old Testament for the Authorized, or King James, Version of the Bible. (Encarta®, Ibid..)
Question: V-BOB, HOW DO WE KNOW THAT KING JAMES TRANSLATED THE SCRIPTURES COLLECTED BACK THEN ACCURATELY WHEN THERE IS NO "J" IN THE HEBREW ALPHABET?
Answer:
The King James Bible was translated from the Textus Receptus. The J does not cause a problem, but the poor quality of the texts they used in the early 1600s gave a poorer translation than we can do from the Majority Text, in my opinion.
In Christ,
Bob
Question: I would like to know what this talk about the dead sea scrolls is.
12 Mar 2000 08:09
Name: Brent Allan
Question:
i would like to know what this talk about the dead sea scrolls is. Are all the scrolls released to the public yet. I also heard that during the time of forceing religous believes, that some of the writings were changed and thats how the cathollics got there believe system. What conterdicting difference between the Qumram and the Essene. It is said that christainty was started from the Essene Cult. also that there were two savoirs. I can understand that if there were two one of them was the evil one or that there just was one but mistaken in translation to be two. My question may be a little mixed up but i hope you understand them. I'm no English major
Thanks
Answer: (click here to view the answer)
Brent,
The Dead Sea scrolls have been made public. The Biblical Archeology Review has been in the middle of the controversy over getting into the hands of more scholars. Read their magazine to get a lot of info. The greatest benefit of the scrolls has been to show the great reliability of the text we had before their discovery. It' virtually the same.
There is a great amount of controversy of the message of the scrolls. I'd recommend you read one of the many that are in print. We'll be glad to order one for you at biblediscount.com.
Bob Hill